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stormtrooper8

stormtrooper8

Joined
May 30, 2022
Messages
11,018
This post makes me realize you don't understand what I'm saying, and I'm not sure I can be clearer without a ton of words.

It's a bit like a conversion problem, but not really, it's just a multiplaction problem and I feel like you understand that but for some reason decide to leave the vig in on the individual bets then remove it for the parlay as if to say that is shorting the odds or to make a point.

I don't understand your point, it doesn't seem relevant.

If the bet is -110, the it's -110. If a parlay of two of those together pays proper, the EV doesn't change by putting them together, it's the variance that changes.
No I understand it fully

+264 for hitting two -110's is objectively long-term value worse value that betting two separately.


If you bet $100 for a two-team parlay at +264, you're expected profit is about -$9

If you took that $100 and instead bet $50 on each leg, you're expected profit is about -$5.05

What you're not accounting for is that juice doesn't simply move proportionally with the single leg prices. It's compounded
 

stormtrooper8

stormtrooper8

Joined
May 30, 2022
Messages
11,018
No I understand it fully

+264 for hitting two -110's is objectively long-term value worse value that betting two separately.


If you bet $100 for a two-team parlay at +264, you're expected profit is about -$9

If you took that $100 and instead bet $50 on each leg, you're expected profit is about -$5.05

What you're not accounting for is that juice doesn't simply move proportionally with the single leg prices. It's compounded
Should add that a two-team parlay at -110 would only be worth it and create value if it's basically cheaper than +280
 

KVB

KVB

Joined
Apr 11, 2023
Messages
12,466
Does rolling over your bet on another game count as a parlay

Basically.

If the games are going off at different times then you can bet the first game. Take the winnings and original bet and place it on the second game. A good book should basically show it as the same odds.

For example, you make that -110 bet for $100. You win and now have $191.

Take that $191 and bet it at -110 for leg two. The payout for the win is $173 + your $191 bet.

That's equal to $364. That's your original $100 bet plus +2.64 units in winnings.

It is no different than putting both plays in a two pick parlay. The vig is the same.

Remember, a parlay is just that. One bet parlayed into another.

I have often seen professional gambloers incorrectly calculate the vigorish on paralys because they fail to realize, even if you only make one risk, your bet, that from the book's perspective you are making as many bets as are in the parlay. You are not just risking that bet once, you risking multiple times.

This is an important concept.
 

Brock Landers

Brock Landers

Joined
Oct 17, 2021
Messages
2,561
Basically.

If the games are going off at different times then you can bet the first game. Take the winnings and original bet and place it on the second game. A good book should basically show it as the same odds.

For example, you make that -110 bet for $100. You win and now have $191.

Take that $191 and bet it at -110 for leg two. The payout for the win is $173 + your $191 bet.

That's equal to $364. That's your original $100 bet plus +2.64 units in winnings.

It is no different than putting both plays in a two pick parlay. The vig is the same.

Remember, a parlay is just that. One bet parlayed into another.

I have often seen professional gambloers incorrectly calculate the vigorish on paralys because they fail to realize, even if you only make one risk, your bet, that from the book's perspective you are making as many bets as are in the parlay. You are not just risking that bet once, you risking multiple times.

This is an important concept.
That's all in if wagering.

A strategy I used all the time at 5dimes.

Unfortunately, i don't know any other books that really allow it
 
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